1. Sally has decided that she wants to get pregnant. Which of the following is the LEAST important factor to be considered with her decision?

A) stability of relationship with partner

B) willingness to change lifestyle

C) long-range career plans

D) choice of home or hospital delivery

2. Which one of the following preexisting medical conditions does NOT require special consideration when a woman is planning a pregnancy?

A) dermatitis

B) diabetes

C) epilepsy

D) asthma

3. A 38-year-old woman considering pregnancy should be most concerned with the impact of which one of the following factors?

A) her age

B) a family history of twins

C) never having had measles

D) being slightly overweight

4. The Allens, both 32 years old, are concerned about the health of their unborn child. Which one of the following factors is most likely to be the cause of their concern?

A) Mr. Allen took LSD when he was in high school.

B) Mrs. Allen has a family history of genetic illnesses.

C) Mr. Allen has diabetes.

D) Their age.

5. The fusion of an ovum and sperm is called

A) conception.

B) in vitro.

C) genetic coding.

D) insemination.

6. The cell that is created from the fertilization of an ovum with a sperm is called a/an

A) embryo.

B) zygote.

C) blastocyst.

D) fetus.

7. Conception normally occurs in the

A) ovary.

B) uterus.

C) fimbria.

D) fallopian tube.

8. The hollow organ in which the blastocyst embeds itself is the

A) uterus.

B) cervix.

C) vagina.

D) oviduct.

9. The basic units of heredity that direct the structure and function of all body cells are

A) chromosomes.

B) trophoblasts.

C) gametes.

D) genes.

10. If the female egg is not fertilized, it will last about

A) 12 hours.

B) 24 hours.

C) 32 hours.

D) 48 hours.

11. An ovum or a sperm has ______ chromosomes.

A) 22

B) 23

C) 44

D) 46

12. Barbara has just given birth to quadruplets-two boys and two girls. At least how many eggs had to be fertilized?

A) one

B) two

C) three

D) four

13. Alice delivered a set of fraternal twins. Which of the following statements about them is true?

A) They will be exactly alike in terms of their genetic code.

B) They came from an ovum that was fertilized by two sperm.

C) They resulted from two ova, each fertilized by a separate sperm.

D) They came from two ova fertilized by a single sperm.

14. Identical twins

A) share the same genetic code.

B) are no more alike than other siblings.

C) result from one ovum fertilized by two separate sperm.

D) result from two eggs fertilized by two separate sperm.

15. Fraternal twins

A) share the same genetic code.

B) are no more alike than other siblings.

C) result from one ovum fertilized by a single sperm.

D) are always of the same sex.

16. Carolyn delivered a set of identical twins. Which of the following is FALSE?

A) The twins developed from a single fertilized egg.

B) The twins resulted from one ovum fertilized by one sperm.

C) The twins will have the same genetic code.

D) The twins came from one ovum fertilized by two sperm.

17. A couple seeking advice about their inability to conceive after 6 months will most likely

A) be told to keep trying.

B) be asked to undergo a complete infertility workup.

C) be started on hormone therapy.

D) be offered in vitro fertilization.

18. One of the leading causes of female infertility is

A) age.

B) thyroid disease.

C) blocked fallopian tubes.

D) endometriosis.

19. Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often the result of

A) age.

B) urinary tract infections.

C) infections from sexually transmitted diseases.

D) scarring from abdominal surgery.

20. Kelley's infertility is caused by blocked fallopian tubes. She has no history of pelvic infections or sexually transmitted diseases. What is the most likely cause of the blockage?

A) scarring from abnormal hormone levels

B) endometriosis

C) a congenital defect in the oviduct

D) a tumor

21. Sarah has endometriosis. She has been trying unsuccessfully to conceive for 18 months. It is likely that

A) her partner is sterile.

B) she has blocked fallopian tubes.

C) she does not ovulate with her menstrual cycles.

D) she has an ectopic pregnancy.

22. Emily is 30 years old and concerned about the possibility of infertility if she continues to postpone pregnancy. Most physicians would advise her to

A) have a fertility workup.

B) begin her family before she reaches age 35.

C) not be unduly concerned because menopause is unlikely to begin for at least 12 more years.

D) avoid pregnancy because of her age.

23. George is 32 years old and concerned about his ability to father a child. The LEAST likely reason for his concern is

A) his age.

B) that he takes hot baths frequently.

C) that he fell on the cross bar of his bicycle when he was a child.

D) that he had a severe case of the mumps when he was 21 years old.

24. Recent studies indicate that sperm counts worldwide have dropped dramatically. One reason for this decrease might be

A) an increase in toxic substances in the environment.

B) changes in clothing styles.

C) longer waits to have children.

D) a decrease in the use of chemicals that mimic hormones.

25. A common treatment approach for infertility resulting from a low sperm count is

A) surrogate motherhood.

B) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.

C) advice to have intercourse only once a month to build up sperm stores.

D) drug therapy.

26. Placing semen in the vagina or uterus by means other than sexual intercourse is called

A) in vitro fertilization.

B) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.

C) conception.

D) fertilization.

27. A common treatment approach for infertility caused by problems with ovulation is

A) in vitro fertilization.

B) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.

C) surgery to unblock the oviduct.

D) drug therapy.

28. The process that results in fertilization of an ovum in a laboratory dish is called

A) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.

B) in vitro fertilization.

C) laparoscopic fertilization.

D) surrogate pregnancy.

29. Surgically placing eggs and sperm into the fallopian tubes prior to fertilization is known as

A) ZIFT.

B) in vitro fertilization.

C) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.

D) GIFT.

30. Which of the following is the most common treatment for infertility?

A) ZIFT

B) GIFT

C) drug therapy

D) surrogate motherhood

31. The hormone found only in pregnant women that, when detected, confirms pregnancy is

A) estrogen.

B) LHRH.

C) prostaglandin.

D) human chorionic gonadotropin.

32. Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone

A) secreted by the implanted fertilized ovum.

B) that stimulates ovulation.

C) that allows conception to occur.

D) necessary for the success of in vitro fertilization.

33. Which of the following is NOT an early sign of pregnancy?

A) nausea

B) fatigue

C) Braxton Hicks contractions

D) breast tenderness

34. Hegar's sign is

A) the purple coloration of the cervix.

B) the softening of the uterus near the cervix.

C) a home pregnancy test.

D) the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin.

35. Four weeks after a woman misses her menstrual period, she would be considered to be about ________ weeks pregnant.

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 10

36. What is the recommended average weight gain during pregnancy?

A) 5% of a woman's initial weight

B) 8-10% of a woman's initial weight

C) 18-25% of a woman's initial weight

D) no limit on weight to assure appropriate nutrient supply to the fetus

37. The settling of the fetus into the pelvic cavity

A) occurs at the end of the first trimester.

B) is known as lightening.

C) is called quickening.

D) is an indicator of imminent delivery.

38. Braxton Hicks contractions and lightening occur during

A) the first trimester.

B) the second trimester.

C) the third trimester.

D) labor.

39. The greatest degree of physical stress associated with pregnancy occurs

A) during the first trimester.

B) during the second trimester.

C) during the third trimester.

D) depending on the age of the mother.

40. During pregnancy, it would be unusual for the woman to

A) experience emotional changes.

B) not give thought to how the baby will affect her life.

C) have limited physical abilities.

D) fear change in her relationship with her partner.

41. Cell differentiation and subsequent fetal development are directed by

A) genetic instructions.

B) the in vitro process.

C) alpha-fetoprotein codes.

D) chorionic gonadotropin.

42. The conglomerate of cells that implants in the uterus and lays the foundation for the development of the placenta and the eventual development of the fetus is the

A) trophoblast.

B) zygote.

C) germ cell.

D) blastocyst.

43. The inner cells of the blastocyst separate into three layers. These three layers become the

A) placenta.

B) embryo.

C) amniotic sac.

D) umbilical cord.

44. The outer shell of the conglomerate of cells that embeds in the uterus becomes the

A) placenta.

B) embryo.

C) brain and spinal cord.

D) genitals.

45. The first 6-14 days following conception are known as the period of the

A) blastocyst.

B) embryo.

C) fetus.

D) zygote.

46. The biggest event that occurs during the period of the blastocyst is

A) cellular division and differentiation.

B) development of organ systems.

C) significant growth of the developing baby.

D) complete development of the central nervous system.

47. The organism that develops from the time of implantation through the 8th week after conception is known as a/an

A) zygote.

B) embryo.

C) fetus.

D) neonate.

48. The period of prenatal development characterized by development of body parts and organ systems is the period of

A) the blastocyst.

B) the embryo.

C) the fetus.

D) organogenesis.

49. Which of the following occurs during the first trimester?

A) The heart begins to beat.

B) A layer of fat accumulates beneath the skin.

C) Fetal movement can be felt.

D) Hair grows on the fetus.

50. Which of the following statements about the placenta is true?

A) The placenta prevents all harmful substances from getting to the developing baby.

B) The placenta stores extra nutrients for the developing baby.

C) The placenta protects the developing baby from extreme temperatures.

D) The placenta removes the developing baby's waste products from the uterine environment.

51. Which of the following statements best describes the function of the placenta?

A) The placenta connects the mother's and the baby's blood supplies.

B) The placenta is a protective membrane that allows nutrients to pass through to the developing baby.

C) The placenta is a barrier that protects the developing baby from all harmful substances.

D) The placenta's only function is to carry nutrients and oxygen to the developing baby.

52. The organism that develops after 8 weeks gestation until being born is referred to as a/an

A) zygote.

B) embryo.

C) fetus.

D) neonate.

53. Which of the following statements best describes what occurs during the stage of prenatal development after the embryo becomes a fetus?

A) The major body structures are formed.

B) The cells are being differentiated into specific body parts.

C) It is a time of growth and refinement.

D) It is the most critical period in terms of risk for developing birth defects.

54. The earliest point in pregnancy in which a fetus might survive outside of the uterus is the

A) end of the third trimester.

B) end of the second trimester.

C) beginning of the second trimester.

D) middle of the third trimester.

55. An ultrasound can NOT provide information about

A) Down Syndrome.

B) the size of the fetus.

C) gestational age.

D) certain anatomical abnormalities.

56. Ultrasounds are LEAST useful in determining

A) genetic disorders.

B) structural abnormalities.

C) gestational age.

D) position of the fetus.

57. An amniocentesis

A) cannot be performed during the first trimester.

B) is done primarily to collect genetic information.

C) cannot determine sex identification.

D) carries a high risk for complications.

58. The primary difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is

A) the cost.

B) the nature of information that can be obtained from the test.

C) the point in time of the pregnancy that the test is performed.

D) the level of skill required by the person performing the test.

59. The triple marker screen (TMS) is used to detect

A) a neural tube defect.

B) gender.

C) gestational age.

D) fetal position.

60. A triple marker screen (TMS) is not performed before the

A) 16th week.

B) 19th week.

C) 22nd week.

D) 28th week

61. Bonnie's pregnancy has been confirmed with a home pregnancy test. Bonnie should

A) establish a relationship with a health care provider so that she can receive the appropriate prenatal care.

B) be patient and retest in 2 weeks because of the high incidence of false positive results with home pregnancy tests.

C) immediately begin an exercise program.

D) join a medically supervised weight-loss program because she is beginning her pregnancy 35 pounds overweight.

62. To decrease the risk of neural tube defects, women who are capable of becoming pregnant are urged to consume at least 400 micrograms daily of

A) folic acid.

B) vitamin C.

C) calcium.

D) iron.

63. Researchers have linked high levels of stress in pregnant women to all of the following EXCEPT

A) miscarriage.

B) Down Syndrome.

C) preterm labor.

D) low birth weight.

64. Stress during pregnancy can lead to increased maternal levels of

A) adrenaline.

B) estrogen.

C) testosterone.

D) cortisol.

65. Teratogen is the term that refers to a/an

A) abnormality of the fetus.

B) defect in the placenta.

C) nutrient required for normal development.

D) substance that can cause birth defects.

66. Most types of birth defects occur during the

A) second trimester.

B) third trimester.

C) first trimester.

D) 12th through the 24th week of pregnancy.

67. Unusual facial features, a small head, and heart defects are characteristic of babies born to mothers who

A) used heroin during pregnancy.

B) used cocaine during pregnancy.

C) were exposed to toxic chemicals during pregnancy.

D) used alcohol during pregnancy.

68. A baby born to a woman who has used cocaine during pregnancy may exhibit which one of the following characteristics?

A) a missing arm or leg

B) extra toes and fingers

C) defects of the urinary tract

D) blindness

69. Babies born with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

A) experience chromosomal abnormalities.

B) may exhibit abnormal behavior patterns.

C) are destined to develop alcoholism.

D) were exposed to low concentrations of nicotine periodically throughout the pregnancy.

70. Cigarette use during pregnancy is likely to result in a baby

A) with low birth weight.

B) with mental impairment.

C) born with anemia.

D) addicted to nicotine.

71. Infants of women who smoke have an increased risk of

A) influenza.

B) neural tube defect.

C) pneumonia.

D) stomach cancer.

72. The most common cause of life-threatening infections in newborns is

A) Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

B) hepatitis B.

C) syphilis.

D) Group B streptococcus.

73. An expectant mother who has not had the measles (rubella)

A) should get vaccinated early in the pregnancy.

B) should get vaccinated during the third trimester.

C) should get vaccinated after delivery.

D) need not be concerned because measles is a childhood illness and seldom affects adults.

74. If a woman has syphilis during pregnancy,

A) the baby will not be affected if delivered by cesarean section.

B) the baby can be born with syphilis.

C) she cannot be treated with penicillin because of the drug's potential harm to the fetus.

D) she does not have to worry about infecting the fetus until giving birth.

75. Neonatal blindness is caused most often by which of the following sexually transmitted diseases?

A) syphilis

B) herpes

C) HIV

D) gonorrhea

76. A young woman has a history of herpes. She has an active lesion during labor. Which of the following interventions will reduce the risk of herpes infection in the baby?

A) delivery by cesarean section

B) treatment with acyclovir during labor

C) application of antibiotic ointment to the baby's eyes after delivery

D) treatment of the lesion with an antiviral topical ointment

77. Pregnant women who are HIV positive

A) are not likely to transmit the virus to the fetus.

B) can reduce the risk of transmission to the baby by taking antiviral drugs.

C) get no benefit from being tested during pregnancy because the fetus will already be infected.

D) will not infect the fetus if the delivery is by cesarean section.

78. Which one of the following is the most customary recommendation regarding exercise during pregnancy?

A) Start a rigorous exercise program.

B) Continue a moderate exercise program.

C) Stop exercising.

D) Increase the intensity of exercise.

79. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a benefit of exercise during pregnancy?

A) increased muscle tone that can ease labor

B) an overall sense of physical and mental well-being

C) helps regain nonpregnant body shape after delivery

D) weight loss during pregnancy

80. The name of the specialized exercise recommended for pregnant women is

A) Kegels.

B) isotonics.

C) aerobics.

D) kinetics.

81. Which of the following is NOT a reason to undertake prenatal exercise and childbirth classes?

A) increased ability to relax during labor

B) decreased fear about labor and delivery

C) minimal weight gain

D) improved muscle tone

82. When a fertilized ovum becomes implanted at a site other than the uterus, the resulting condition is known as a/an _______________ pregnancy.

A) ectopic

B) aborted

C) gestation

D) peritoneal

83. A spontaneous abortion is more commonly known as

A) false labor.

B) an ectopic pregnancy.

C) a voluntary interruption of pregnancy.

D) a miscarriage.

84. Spontaneous abortions are most commonly caused by

A) chromosomal abnormalities.

B) poor nutritional status.

C) the use of cigarettes during pregnancy.

D) the use of alcohol during pregnancy.

85. A low-birth-weight (LBW) baby

A) may be avoided by good prenatal care.

B) is the same as a premature (preterm) baby.

C) has as many health-related problems as premature babies.

D) is likely to be hyperactive.

86. To reduce the risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), parents should

A) put babies to sleep on their stomachs.

B) put babies to sleep on their backs.

C) keep the baby's room warmer than the rest of the house.

D) space children at least 2 years apart.

87. The first stage of labor is characterized by

A) delivery of the placenta.

B) crowning.

C) dilation of the cervix.

D) lightening.

88. Strong and frequent uterine contractions are characteristic of

A) transition.

B) second stage of labor.

C) crowning.

D) engagement.

89. The second stage of labor is characterized by

A) cervical dilation.

B) the delivery of the baby.

C) an average duration of 13 hours.

D) delivery of the placenta.

90. The third stage of labor is characterized by

A) intense uterine contractions.

B) movement of the baby's head into the birth canal.

C) delivery of the amniotic sac.

D) delivery of the placenta.

91. The Apgar score 5 minutes after birth that indicates that a newborn baby is adapting well to extrauterine life is

A) 4-6.

B) 7-10.

C) 12-14.

D) 16-19.

92. Breastfeeding is associated with many benefits to the mother and the baby. Which of the following is NOT associated with breastfeeding?

A) contributes to mother's weight loss

B) can enhance emotional attachment to the infant

C) is a guaranteed form of birth control as long as breastfeeding continues

D) is more suited to the nutritional needs of the infant and more easily digested when compared to formula

93. Fluctuations in hormones during the postpartum period may result in a temporary condition commonly called the "baby blues." Which of the following is NOT a usual characteristic of this condition?

A) sleep disorders

B) periods of sadness and/or weeping

C) feelings of anxiety

D) despondency

94. Which of the following is NOT an expected occurrence during the postpartum period?

A) lactation

B) postpartum depression

C) attachment to the newborn infant

D) lowered stamina

.