1. Which one of the following statements
regarding STDs is FALSE?
a) STDs are often silent diseases.
b) STDs cannot be transmitted unless a person
has signs and symptoms of the diseases.
c) STDs are linked to infertility.
d) STDs can cause birth defects.
2. All of the following have no cure EXCEPT
a) genital warts. b)
hepatitis. c) syphilis.
d) herpes.
3. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
a) is a member of the herpes virus family.
b) disables the immune function of the CD4 T
cells.
c) attacks the B-cell lymphocyte.
d) is the cause of an acute illness.
4. Which one of the following statements
regarding the global issue of HIV/AIDS is FALSE?
a) Ninety-five percent of infections occur in
developing countries where heterosexual contact is the main means of HIV
transmission.
b) Women are the fastest growing group of newly
infected people.
c)
d) Political, economic, and social barriers
contribute to the ongoing spread of HIV infection.
5. The average time span between the initial HIV
infection and the onset of disease symptoms is _______________ years.
a) 2
b) 5 c)
11 d) 20
6. Shortly after HIV infection, about 50% of
those infected will develop
a) severe
night sweats. c) Kaposi's sarcoma.
b) flulike
symptoms. d) Pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia.
7. HIV can survive
a) on bed linens. b)
in food. c) on toilet seats. d)
in blood or blood products.
8. Transmission of HIV occurs through
a) using the same toilet as someone with HIV.
b) sharing eating utensils with someone with
HIV.
c) hugging someone with HIV.
d) unprotected sexual intercourse with someone
with HIV.
9. The main routes of HIV transmission include
all of the following EXCEPT
a) certain
types of sexual contact. c) HIV-infected woman to fetus.
b) direct
exposure to infected blood. d) sharing eating utensils.
10. The riskiest sexual activity for contracting
HIV is
a) receiving fellatio
b) being the receptive partner during
unprotected vaginal intercourse
c) being the receptive partner during
unprotected anal intercourse
d) receiving cunnillingus
11. HIV transmission during sexual contact is
LEAST likely to occur with
a) oral
sex. c) overuse of spermicides.
b) unwanted
intercourse. d) the use of enemas prior to anal sex.
12. The LEAST likely mode of direct bloodborne
transmission of HIV is
a) needles
used to inject drugs. c) acupuncture.
b) shared
razors. d) body piercing.
13. Studies have found that women who used this
contraceptive method were at greater risk for HIV transmission.
a) spermicides b)
condoms c) cervical caps d)
IUD
14. All of the following groups are at high risk
for HIV infection EXCEPT
a) drug users. b)
drug users' sex partners.
c) drug users' children. d)
lesbians.
15. Which of the following HIV transmission modes
is also known as "vertical transmission"?
a) mother-to-child transmission
b) sexual transmission
c) transmission through contaminated needles
d) transmission during medical procedure
16. Newborn babies are infected with HIV through
a) living in the same house as someone with
AIDS.
b) contact with the virus in the hospital.
c) transmission from HIV-infected mothers.
d) transmission from HIV-infected fathers.
17. It is believed that HIV cannot be transmitted
via tears or saliva because
a) of the low concentration of HIV in these
body fluids.
b) it is unlikely that tears or saliva will
enter the skin.
c) HIV, even in tears or saliva, dies outside
the body.
d) of reasons not understood by scientists.
18. Which one of the following statements about
HIV or AIDS is true?
a) AIDS continues to rise in men at a faster
rate than in women.
b) About 90% of cases of HIV infection in
children are the result of transfusion with contaminated blood.
c) Injecting drug use contributes to almost 50%
of HIV infection among minorities.
d) HIV infection has remained stable among gay
men in general.
19. Signs and symptoms of HIV infection do NOT
include
a) unexplained,
persistent swollen glands. c) fever, chills, or night sweats.
b) weight
gain. d) immobilizing fatigue.
20. The infection most often seen in HIV patients
is
a) Kaposi's
sarcoma. c) tuberculosis.
b) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. d) mycobacterium avium complex.
21. A rare form of cancer that has become common
among men with AIDS is
a) Kaposi's
sarcoma. c) cryptosporidiosis.
b) Pneumocystis carinii. d) Burkitt's lymphoma.
22. The initial screening test for HIV antibodies
is a/an
a) ELISA
test. c) Western blot.
b) CD4
lymphocyte count. d) HIV-1 antigen test.
23. The test that is used as a confirming test
for HIV is the
a) ELISA test. b)
CD4 lymphocyte test. c) Western blot. d)
HIV-1 antigen test.
24. The severity of HIV infection can be
monitored by checking
a) total lymphocyte counts.
b) levels of HIV DNA to determine viral load.
c) for therapeutic drug levels.
d) CD4 T-cell counts.
25. When the body produces antibodies to HIV, it
is called
a) active
immunity. c) seroconversion.
b) passive
immunity. d) antigen receptive.
26. Which of the following has been used to
monitor the success of HIV treatments?
a) Western
blot test c) HIV-1 antigen test
b) viral
load d) CD4 lymphocyte count
27. Anonymous tests for HIV continue to be
available because of concerns that people with HIV infection will be
a) stigmatized.
c) afraid of being identified.
b) subject
to discrimination. d) all of the above
28. In 1999, the CDC recommended that states
report
a) HIV infection only.
b) both HIV infection and full-blown AIDS.
c) full-blown AIDS only.
d) an individual's first name with the HIV
status.
29. The most commonly used drug in the treatment
of HIV infection that inhibits reproduction of the virus is
a) Compound Q. b)
zidovudine (AZT). c) interleukin-2. d)
didanosine (ddI).
30. Protease inhibitors
a) stop the development of a protein coat
around new HIV cells.
b) replace HIV DNA with CD4 RNA.
c) stop the production of CCR-5 cells.
d) regulate the production of new CD4
lymphocytes.
31. A major development in HIV treatment is
a) the use of vaccines.
b) genetic engineering.
c) very early use of antiviral drug therapy.
d) using protease inhibitors instead of reverse
transcriptase inhibitors.
32. All of the following guidelines are important
when considering HIV testing EXCEPT that you should
a) know
your testing options. c) be familiar with modes of transmission.
b) understand
the possible test results. d) wait for symptoms to appear.
33. The HIV treatment that requires the patient
to discontinue drug therapy to help stimulate the patient's immune response is
called
a) protease inhibition. b)
HAART. c) AZT.
d) structured intermittent
therapy.
34. Drugs frequently used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are
a) protease inhibitors. b)
antiviral agents. c) antibiotics. d)
nucleoside analogs.
35. Which of the following statements about
pregnancy and HIV is true?
a) More than 50% of infants born to untreated
HIV-infected women are infected.
b) HIV is linked to infertility.
c) Infected women should not have cesarean
deliveries.
d) Treatment with AZT during pregnancy reduces
the risk of transmission.
36. All of the following are risk factors for
contracting HIV EXCEPT
a) sex with multiple partners.
b) alcohol and other drug use.
c) using a lambskin condom during vaginal or
anal sex.
d) mutual masturbation.
37. Chlamydia is the most common _______________
STD.
a) viral
b) bacterial c)
fungal d) protozoal
38. Chlamydia is the most common STD among
a) women.
b) young adults. c)
teenagers. d) infants.
39. Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of
_______________ in men.
a) epididymitis b)
prostatitis c) urinary tract infection d)
testiculitis
40. Which of the following statements about
chlamydia infection is FALSE?
a) Its symptoms are painful and long-lasting.
b) It is related to PID.
c) It can cause pneumonia and eye infection in
newborns.
d) It can lead to infertility.
41. Infants with chlamydia infection
a) acquire the infection through contact in the
birth canal.
b) are born with deformities.
c) acquire the infection transplacentally.
d) are at risk for brain damage.
42. Symptoms of chlamydia do NOT include
a) generalized
rash. c) discharge from the penis or vagina.
b) painful
urination for males and females. d) lower abdominal pain in females.
43. Which of the following antibiotics is usually
NOT used to treat chlamydia?
a) penicillin
b) azithromycin c)
doxycycline d) erythromycin
44. Infection with gonorrhea does NOT lead to
a) neonatal blindness. b)
epididymitis in men. c) arthritis.
d) dementia.
45. Gonococcal conjunctivitis is an inflammation
of the mucous membrane lining the
a) urinary tract. b)
respiratory tract. c) eyelids.
d) vagina.
46. Which of the following statements about
gonorrhea is FALSE?
a) About 50% of men are asymptomatic.
b) The organism is dependent on moist mucous
membranes for survival.
c) Gonorrhea may infect the throat, anus, and
rectum.
d) Gonorrhea is easily transmitted in moist
environments such as showers and locker rooms.
47. Treatment for gonorrhea includes
a) antiviral agents. b)
antifungal agents. c) antibiotics. d)
acyclovir.
48. An infection that progresses from the vagina
and cervix to infect the pelvic cavity and fallopian tubes is called
a) urinary
tract infection. c) endometriosis.
b) ascending
pelvic inflammation. d) pelvic inflammatory disease.
49. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common
complication of
a) syphilis
and herpes. c) genital warts and chlamydia.
b) herpes
and gonorrhea. d) gonorrhea and chlamydia.
50. Which of the following statements about
pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE?
a) It can cause chronic pain.
b) It is the leading cause of female
infertility.
c) It always has severe and unmistakeable
symptoms.
d) There may be recurrent problems despite
treatment.
51. The sexually transmitted virus that produces
wartlike growths in the genital area is called
a) HPV.
b) HSV. c)
HIV. d) HBV.
52. The STD that most college students seek
treatment for is
a) herpes.
b) HIV. c)
human papilloma virus. d) hepatitis B.
53. The family of viruses that causes the
development of genital warts is
a) condyloma.
c) human papillomavirus.
b) condylomata.
d) herpes simplex virus.
54. Studies have linked HPV to an increase in the
progression of
a) HIV/AIDS.
b) CHD. c)
lung cancer. d) emphysema.
55. Symptoms of genital warts in men do NOT
include
a) initial
painful growths. c) warts on the anus.
b) warts
appearing on the penis. d) painful penile discharge.
56. HPV infection in pregnant women can be
transmitted to the newborn, occasionally causing warts to form on the infant's
a) genitals.
b) fingers. c)
vocal cords. d) toes.
57. Treatments for genital warts include all of
the following EXCEPT
a) cryosurgery. b)
electrocautery. c) antibiotics. d)
podophyllin.
58. Women who are infected with HPV
a) will not infect their sexual partners unless
visible growths exist.
b) may have painful urination from growths that
develop in the urethra.
c) may have growths inside the uterus.
d) typically have growths on the labia and
vulva.
59. The herpes virus responsible for cold sores
is
a) HSV-1.
b) HSV-2. c)
HSV-A. d) HSV-B.
60. Genital herpes is
a) HSV-1.
b) HSV-2. c)
HSV-A. d) HSV-B.
61. If a pregnant woman's herpes infection
becomes active at the time of delivery, the proper course of action is
a) normal vaginal delivery.
b) cesarean section delivery.
c) medication to delay delivery until the
infection dissipates.
d) medication to cure infection.
62. Which of the following statements regarding
herpes and newborns is FALSE?
a) Most babies born to an infected woman will
develop herpes.
b) Newborns should be delivered by cesarean
section if a mother has an active lesion.
c) Neonatal herpes can cause brain damage and
early death.
d) There is no effective treatment for neonatal
herpes.
63. Which one of the following is NOT associated
with recurrent outbreaks of herpes?
a) sunbathing
b) fatigue c)
menstruation d) vitamin C deficiency
64. A drug used to treat herpes is
a) podophyllin. b)
Flagyl. c) doxycycline. d)
acyclovir.
65. Herpes is considered a serious STD for all of
the following reasons EXCEPT
a) its
high fatality rate. c) its serious impact on newborns.
b) its
high incidence rate. d) the lack of a cure for the disease.
66. Inflammation of the liver is known as
a) hepatitis. b)
jaundice. c) Treponema
pallidum. d) epididymitis.
67. HBV can be transmitted via all of the
following EXCEPT
a) toilet seats. b)
toothbrushes. c) eating utensils. d)
razor blades.
68. Which of the following describes the LEAST
severe symptoms you might experience if you contract hepatitis?
a) no symptoms at all b)
flulike symptoms c) jaundice
d) arthritis
69. Which one of the following statements about
hepatitis is FALSE?
a) Hepatitis is diagnosed using blood tests.
b) A vaccine is available for HBV.
c) Hepatitis cannot be transmitted to an unborn
child.
d) Immunoglobulin can be used to minimize risk
of infection after exposure to HBV.
70. The spiral-shaped organism that causes
syphilis is a type of
a) chancre.
b) bacterium. c)
virus. d) protozoa.
71. The sores produced by syphilis in its
earliest stage are described as
a) painful
fluid-filled blisters. c) fluid-filled papules.
b) genital
warts. d) chancres.
72. Characteristics of primary syphilis include
a) painful lesions.
b) a lesion at the site where the organism
entered the body.
c) hair loss.
d) a rash on the palms of the hands.
73. Which of the following statements regarding
secondary syphilis is FALSE?
a) Signs and symptoms appear 3-6 weeks after
the first lesion appears.
b) It is characterized by a rash typically found
on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.
c) A person is not contagious, because of the
absence of lesions.
d) This stage involves mild flulike symptoms.
74. Symptoms of late syphilis do NOT include
a) heart damage. b)
blindness. c) dementia.
d) contagious rash.
75. Results of transmission of syphilis from a
pregnant woman to the fetus include all of the following EXCEPT
a) no risk of infection if delivery is by
cesarean section.
b) premature delivery.
c) stillbirth.
d) birth defects.
76. A common sexually transmitted disease caused
by a single-celled organism is
a) Candida
albicans. b) pubic lice.
c) trichomoniasis. d)
scabies.
77. Symptoms of trichomoniasis in women include
a) lesions around the vagina.
b) fever and chills.
c) decreased appetite, nausea, and vomiting.
d) greenish, foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
78. Symptoms of trichomoniasis in men include all
of the following EXCEPT
a) itching.
b) clear discharge. c)
no symptoms. d) fever.
79. The drug of choice in treating trichomoniasis
is
a) Flagyl.
b) podophyllin. c)
tetracycline. d) penicillin.
80. The most common cause of abnormal vaginal
discharge in women of reproductive age is
a) trichomoniasis. b)
bacterial vaginosis. c) gonorrhea.
d) chlamydia.
81. Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis
include
a) painful
urination. c) vaginal discharge with a fishlike odor.
b) clear,
odorless vaginal discharge. d) vaginal ulcers.
82. The main symptom of chancroid is
a) a painful sore. b)
vaginal discharge. c) a painless chancre. d) a
rash.
83. Parasites that feed on human blood and are
usually found on genital hair are called
a) Candida
albicans. b) pubic lice.
c) pediculosis. d)
condyloma.
84. Treatment for pubic lice does NOT include
a) over-the-counter
medication. c) washing clothing and linen.
b) acyclovir.
d) fine-combing all body hair.
85. The condition in which a burrowing parasite
deposits eggs beneath the skin in the creases of the body is called
a) Candida
albicans. b) pubic lice.
c) pediculosis. d)
scabies.
86. Usual sites of infestation of scabies do NOT
include
a) the
scalp. c) the penis and scrotum.
b) between
the fingers. d) the wrists or armpits.
87. The key to prevention of STDs is
a) diagnosis.
b) treatment. c)
screening. d) education.
88. Educating the public about the prevention of
HIV infection was initially most effective among
a) gay
populations. c) sexual partners of injection drug users.
b) injection
drug users. d) teenagers.
89. Which of the following strategies has not
been used to combat HIV infection?
a) mandatory
sexuality education c) dramatic presentations
b) public
service announcements d) support from well-known figures
90. A sexually active person has an obligation to
a) be aware of signs and symptoms of STDs.
b) begin treatment immediately if infected.
c) protect one's partner through communication.
d) all of the above
91. The most effective approach to avoiding STDs
is
a) use
of condoms. c) penicillin therapy.
b) use
of contraceptive foams. d) abstinence.
92. Safe approaches to STD prevention include
a) douching or urinating after intercourse.
b) engaging in oral sex or engaging in genital
play without full penetration.
c) using birth control pills.
d) using condoms.