Test 4 
Bio 160  Genetics and Human Affairs
April 12, 2010

1.	 Cytogenetics is the study of chromosomes, their abnormalities and the syndromes they cause.  
 
A. 	
 True 	

B. 	
 False 	

	
 
2.	 A chromosome consists of  
 
A. 	
 mostly protein and RNA with a small amount of DNA. 	

C. 	
 about equal proportions of DNA, RNA, and protein. 	

B. 	
 mostly DNA and proteins with a small amount of RNA. 	

D. 	
 DNA only. 	

	
 
3.	 ________contains more protein-encoding sequences than__________________  
 
A. 	
 Heterochromatin, euchromatin 	

C. 	
 Pericentric inversions, aneuploids 	

B. 	
 Euchromatin, heterochromatin 	

D. 	
 Aneuploids, pericentric inversions 	

	
 
4.	 Heterochromatic regions at the ends of chromosomes are:  
 
A. 	
 Centromeres 	

D. 	
 Satellites 	

B. 	
 Euchromatin 	

E. 	
 Mostly codons 	

C. 	
 Telomeres 	

 	

 
5.	 Which type of cell could not be used to examine chromosomes?  
 
A. 	
 Red blood cell 	

C. 	
 bone marrow cells 	

B. 	
 White blood cell 	

D. 	
 Skin cell 	

	
 
6.	 An extra set of chromosomes constitutes:  
 
A. 	
 Aneuploidy 	

C. 	
 Diploidy 	

B. 	
 Polyploidy 	

D. 	
 Haploidy 	

	
 
7.	 An individual with the chromosomal description 45, X would be a:  
 
A. 	
 normal female. 	

C. 	
 male with Klinefelter syndrome. 	

B. 	
 female with Turner syndrome. 	

D. 	
 cannot be determined. 	

	
 
8.	 Prenatal diagnostic techniques that obtain fetal chromosomes include all but:  
 
A. 	
 amniocentesis. 	

C. 	
 chorionic villus sampling. 	

B. 	
 fetal cell sorting. 	

D. 	
 fluorescence in situ hybridization. 	

	
 
9.	 Which of the following procedures uses fetal cells that are obtained from the mother's bloodstream?  
 
A. 	
 amniocentesis 	

C. 	
 chorionic villus sampling 	

B. 	
 fetal cell sorting 	

D. 	
 fluorescence in situ hybridization 	

	
 
10.	 The most common autosomal aneuploid is:  
 
A. 	
 trisomy 13    

	
C. 	
 trisomy 18 	

B. 	
 trisomy 15 	

D. 	
 trisomy 21 	

	
 
11.	 In nondisjunction, which parent leads to the sex chromosome aneuploid XYY?  
 
A. 	
 mother 	

C. 	
 either parent 	

B. 	
 father 	

D. 	
 both parents 	

	
 
12.	 A triploid human karyotype has how many chromosomes?  
 
A. 	
 23 	

C. 	
 69 	

B. 	
 46 	

D. 	
 92 	

	
 
13.	 A chromosome is ______ if the centromere divides it into two arms of approximately equal length.  
 
A. 	
 telocentric 	

C. 	
 metacentric 	

B. 	
 submetacentric 	

D. 	
 acrocentric 	

	
 
14.	 _____cells have extra or missing chromosomes, while_____cells contain a normal number of chromosomes.  
 
A. 	
 Aneuploid, euploid 	

C. 	
 Autosome, polyploid 	

B. 	
 Polyploid, autosome 	

D. 	
 Euploid, aneuploid 	

	
 
15.	 The alleles in a population comprise its:  
 
A. 	
 gene allocation 	

C. 	
 gene pool 	

B. 	
 gene flow 	

D. 	
 genotype 	

	
 
16.	 ______is the source of new alleles in a population  
 
A. 	
 Genetic drift 	

C. 	
 Selection 	

B. 	
 Mutation 	

D. 	
 Nonrandom mating 	

	
 
17.	 Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium explains:  
 
A. 	
 the introduction of new aleles into a population. 	

C. 	
 the reasons for migration. 	

B. 	
 the formation of a new species. 	

D. 	
 constant allele frequencies in a population. 	

	
 
18.	 Consider a gene in a population where the dominant alele G occurs in 56%  of the gametes.  What is the frequency of the recessive allele?  
 
A. 	
 56% 	

C. 	
 0% 	

B. 	
 44% 	

D. 	
 cannot be determined. 	

	
 
19.	 The chance of carrying the cystic fibrosis allele is 1/23 in the Caucasian population.  The risk for two unrelated Caucasian individuals, neither of whom have a family history of CF, of having an affected child is:  
 
A. 	
 1/4 x 1/4 	

C. 	
 1/23 x 1/23 	

B. 	
 1/23 x 1/23 x 1/4 	

D. 	
 1/4 x 1/4 x 1/23 	

	
 
20.	 The Mennonite and Amish populations have many autosomal recessive illnesses that are extremely rare elsewhere.  This is not because:  
 
A. 	
 they descended from a few founding families. 	

C. 	
 spontaneous mutations occur at a very high rate. 	

B. 	
 they marry among themselves. 	

D. 	
 all of the above account for the prevalence of recessive disorder. 	

	
 
21.	 Challenges to DNA profiling in mass disasters include:  
 
A. 	
 climate that hastens decay. 	

C. 	
 poor DNA quality 	

B. 	
 lack of relatives. 	

D. 	
 All of the above 	

	
 
22.	 Amniocentesis cannot be used to determine which of the following:  
 
A. 	
 The sex of the fetus 	

D. 	
 Missing or abnormal biochemicals in the fetus 	

B. 	
 Intelligence of a fetus 	

E. 	
 Total number of chromosomes 	

C. 	
 The presence of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus 	

 	

 
23.	 Fetal karyotypes can reveal:  
 
A. 	
 Single gene disorders 	

C. 	
 Introns 	

B. 	
 Gender 	

D. 	
 Point mutations 	

	
 
24.	 Chorionic villus sampling differs from amniocentesis in that for CVS:  
 
A. 	
 Cells must first be cultured 	

C. 	
 A karyotype is prepared directly from cells collected through the vagina 	

B. 	
 Biochemical tests can be performed on the sample 	

D. 	
 Cells do not directly descend from the fertilized ovum 	

	
 
25.	 Only nine types of aneuploids are known in newborns because:  
 
A. 	
 Only nine chromosomes undergo nondisjunction 	

C. 	
 Most aneuploids do not cause detectable defects 	

B. 	
 Most types of aneuploids are lethal early in development 	

D. 	
 Missing chromosomes cause most lethal aneuploids 	

	
 
26.	 People with Klinefelter syndrome have which chromosome constitution?  
 
A. 	
 XXY 	

D. 	
 XXX 	

B. 	
 XY 	

E. 	
 XO 	

C. 	
 YO 	

 	

 
27.	 CVS reveals a fetus has the karyotype 47, XYY. What is the diagnosis?  
 
A. 	
 Normal male 	

D. 	
 Jacobs syndrome 	

B. 	
 Klinefelter syndrome 	

E. 	
 Down syndrome 	

C. 	
 Edward syndrome 	

 	

 
28.	 Males born with an extra Y chromosome:  
 
A. 	
 Die shortly after birth 	

D. 	
 Are phenotypically female 	

B. 	
 May be predisposed to violent and anti-social behavior 	

E. 	
 Are genotypically female 	

C. 	
 May be tall but are otherwise normal 	

 	

 
29.	 Uniparental disomy results when a child inherits:  
 
A. 	
 Two recessive alleles, one from each parent 	

D. 	
 More than two alleles from one parent 	

B. 	
 Two alleles from one parent 	

E. 	
 A recessive allele 	

C. 	
 One recessive allele from one parent 	

 	

 
30.	 Polyploidy is common among plants, but is a common cause of spontaneous abortion in humans.  
 
A. 	
 True 	

B. 	
 False 	

	
 
31.	 Which of these can only result from non-disjunction in the male?  
 
A. 	
 YO male 	

D. 	
 Triplo-X 	

B. 	
 Turner syndrome 	

E. 	
 Jacobs syndrome 	

C. 	
 Klinefelter syndrome 	

 	

 
32.	 Gene flow is the:  
 
A. 	
 Transfer of genes within a population 	

C. 	
 Movement of alleles between populations 	

B. 	
 Variation of alleles within a population 	

D. 	
 Change of normal genes to mutant alleles 	

	
 
33.	 Maps that show chromosome size, bands and individual genes are called:  
 
A. 	
 Ideograms 	

D. 	
 Anagrams 	

B. 	
 Chromatograms 	

E. 	
 DNA sequence charts 	

C. 	
 Polygrams 	

 	

 
34.	 Polyploidy can result when:  
 
A. 	
 A translocation occurs between two chromosomes 	

D. 	
 A haploid sperm fertilizes a diploid egg 	

B. 	
 One pair of homologous chromosomes does not separate during meiosis 	

E. 	
 Two ring chromosomes are lost 	

C. 	
 A developing gamete is haploid 	

 	

 
35.	 The meiotic error that results in aneuploid cells is:  
 
A. 	
 Crossing over 	

D. 	
 Unequal segregation 	

B. 	
 Nondisjunction 	

E. 	
 Mosaicism 	

C. 	
 Recombination 	

 	

 
36.	 Which of the following would not alter a gene's frequency in a population?  
 
A. 	
 Mutation 	

D. 	
 Inbreeding 	

B. 	
 Migration 	

E. 	
 A bottle neck 	

C. 	
 Random mating 	

 	

 
37.	 In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, 2pq refers to:  
 
A. 	
 The proportion of heterozygotes in a population 	

D. 	
 Individuals who are homozygous recessive 	

B. 	
 The number of homozygous dominant individuals in a population 	

E. 	
 Individuals with a mutation 	

C. 	
 The most common phenotype in a population 	

 	

 
38.	 In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of recessive alleles will _______ over time.  
 
A. 	
 Increase 	

C. 	
 Remain the same 	

B. 	
 Decrease 	

D. 	
 Increase and then decrease 	

	
 
39.	 Which group is used to calculate the frequency of an allele in a population?  
 
A. 	
 Homozygous recessives 	

D. 	
 Heterozygotes 	

B. 	
 The smallest group 	

E. 	
 Heterozygous dominants 	

C. 	
 Homozygous dominants 	

 	

 
40.	 Interpretation of DNA profiles requires representative population data.  
 
A. 	
 True 	

B. 	
 False 	

	
 
41.	 DNA profiling has been used to:  
 
A. 	
 Determine the identity of murder victims 	

D. 	
 Overturn wrongful convictions 	

B. 	
 Establish paternity 	

E. 	
 All of these 	

C. 	
 Identify victims of terrorism 	

 	

 
42.	 Small scale shifts in allele frequencies is the defining characteristic of_______.  
 
A. 	
 microevoluition 	

C. 	
 natural selection 	

B. 	
 macroevolution 	

D. 	
 nonrandom mating 	

	
 
43.	 Which type of blood cell is not involved in an immune response?  
 
A. 	
 T cell 	

D. 	
 B cell 	

B. 	
 Red blood cell 	

E. 	
 Mast cell 	

C. 	
 Macrophage 	

 	

 
44.	 Which type of white blood cell secretes specific antibodies?  
 
A. 	
 T cell 	

D. 	
 Neutrophil 	

B. 	
 Macrophage 	

E. 	
 Erythrocyte 	

C. 	
 B cell 	

 	

 
45.	 Antigen Presenting cells are typically___________________.  
 
A. 	
 epitopes 	

C. 	
 B cells 	

B. 	
 macrophages 	

D. 	
 mast cells 	

	
 
46.	 Which of the following is not part of the nonspecific, innate defense?  
 
A. 	
 phagocytosis 	

C. 	
 inflammatory response 	

B. 	
 antibodies 	

D. 	
 fever 	

	
 
47.	 A woman is given Rhogam to protect future fetuses from hydrops fetalis if:  
 
A. 	
 She and the fetus are both Rh- 	

D. 	
 She is Rh+ and the father is Rh- 	

B. 	
 She is Rh+ and the fetus is Rh- 	

E. 	
 She and the father are both Rh- 	

C. 	
 She is Rh- and the father is Rh+ 	

 	

 
48.	 A transplant that occurs between identical twins is called a(n)______  
 
A. 	
 autograft 	

C. 	
 allograft 	

B. 	
 isograft 	

D. 	
 xenograft 	

	
 
49.	 B cells secrete antibodies when they:  
 
A. 	
 Bind antigens 	

D. 	
 Are stimulated by activated T cells 	

B. 	
 Are engulfed by macrophages 	

E. 	
 Undergo apoptosis 	

C. 	
 Become T cells 	

 	

 
50.	 The enzyme __________ allows HIV to make a DNA copy of its RNA genome.  
 
A. 	
 Reverse transcriptase 	

D. 	
 DNA transcriptase 	

B. 	
 DNA polymerase 	

E. 	
 DNA ligase 	

C. 	
 RNA polymerase 	

 	

 
51.	 HIV destroys the immune system by primarily killing off _______.  
 
A. 	
 Cytotoxic T cells 	

D. 	
 Macrophages 	

B. 	
 B cells 	

E. 	
 Erythrocytes 	

C. 	
 Helper T cells 	

 	

 
52.	 People who cannot become infected with HIV have:  
 
A. 	
 Extra T cells 	

D. 	
 Antibodies to HIV 	

B. 	
 Deletions in the genes encoding the CCR5 co-receptor 	

E. 	
 Anti-HIV antigens 	

C. 	
 A gene encoding a protein that attacks the virus 	

 	

 
53.	 Some people fear that using xenotransplants may introduce viruses that are harmless in animal donors but may cause a new illness in humans.  
 
A. 	
 True 	

B. 	
 False 	

	
 
54.	 In an allograft, the tissue donor is:  
 
A. 	
 The recipient 	

D. 	
 A different species 	

B. 	
 A non-relative 	

E. 	
 A monozygotic twin 	

C. 	
 An identical twin 	

 	

 
55.	 Infecting people with _______ led to vaccination against smallpox.  
 
A. 	
 Chicken pox 	

D. 	
 Mumps 	

B. 	
 Pig pox 	

E. 	
 Measles 	

C. 	
 Cow pox 	

 	

 
56.	 Proper functioning of the immune system depends on the ability to recognize self from nonself.  
 
A. 	
 True 	

B. 	
 False 	

	
 
57.	 Heart valve replacement in humans using a pig valve is an example of a(n):  
 
A. 	
 Autograft 	

D. 	
 Xenograft 	

B. 	
 Isograft 	

E. 	
 Unmatched recipient 	

C. 	
 Allograft 	

 	

 
58.	Antibiotics are useful against:  
 
A. 	
 autoimmune diseases 	

C. 	
 viruses 	

B. 	
 bacteria 	

D. 	
 All of the above 	

	
 
59.	The identification proteins on the surface of cells belong to a class of molecules called the:  
 
A. 	
 cytokines 	

C. 	
 major histocompatibility complex 	

B. 	
 Rh factor 	

D. 	
 ABO antigen locus. 	

	
 
60.	Severe combined immune deficiencies affect which branch of the immune system  
 
A. 	
 humoral 	

C. 	
 both 	

B. 	
 cellular 	

D. 	
 neither 	

	
 
61.	 Antibody production begins:  
 
A. 	
 In a fetus as its bone marrow develops 	

D. 	
 After birth and a few months after exposure to foreign antigens 	

B. 	
 In a fetus in response to maternal antigens 	

E. 	
 At the embryo stage 	

C. 	
 Immediately after birth 	

 	

 
62.	 Antibody diversity is a consequence of:  
 
A. 	
 Rearranging of HLA proteins on B cell surfaces 	

D. 	
 Differential regulation of antibody gene expression 	

B. 	
 Point mutations within antibody genes 	

E. 	
 Short sequence repeats (SSRs) and variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) 	

C. 	
 Shuffling of antibody genes into different combinations during B cell development 	

 	

 
63.	Bioweapons:  
 
A. 	
 have been used for centuries 	

C. 	
 are inexpensive and fairly easy to produce. 	

B. 	
 employ pathogens to harm innocent people 	

D. 	
 All of the above are true regarding bioweapons. 	

	
 
64.	A(An) ____ is a multi-subunit protein produced by B cells that binds to foreign substances and alters components of the immune system.  
 
A. 	
 antibody 	

C. 	
 antigen 	

B. 	
 cytokine 	

D. 	
 None of the above 	

	
 
65.	 In an autoimmune disease, the body manufactures autoantibodies against its own cells. Autoimmunity may result from:  
 
A. 	
 a virus that incorporates and displays a self antigen. 	

D. 	
 from lingering fetal cells 	

B. 	
 from bacteria or cancer cells that have antigens that resemble self antigens. 	

E. 	
 All of the above. 	

C. 	
 from unselected T cells. 	

 	

 
66.	 A(n) ______ is a group of interbreeding members of the same species in a particular area.  
 
A. 	
 frequency 	

C. 	
 population 	

B. 	
 incidence 	

D. 	
 equilibrium 	

	

Test 4 10 Key
 
1. A
 
2. B
 
3. B
 
4. C
 
5. A
 
6. B
 
7. B
 
8. D
 
9. B
 
10. D
 
11. B
 
12. C
 
13. C
 
14. A
 
15. C
 
16. B
 
17. D
 
18. B
 
19. B
 
20. C
 
21. D
 
22. B
 
23. B
 
24. C
 
25. B
 
26. A
 
27. D
 
28. C
 
29. B
 
30. A
 
31. E
 
32. C
 
33. A
 
34. D
 
35. B
 
36. C
 
37. A
 
38. C
 
39. A
 
40. A
 
41. E
 
42. A
 
43. B
 
44. C
 
45. B
 
46. B
 
47. C
 
48. B
 
49. D
 
50. A
 
51. C
 
52. B
 
53. A
 
54. B
 
55. C
 
56. A
 
57. D
 
58. B
 
59. C
 
60. C
 
61. D
 
62. C
 
63. D
 
64. A
 
65. E
 
66. C

Test 4 10 Summary
 
Category	# of Questions	
Difficulty: Difficult	11	
Difficulty: Easy	17	
Difficulty: Moderate	15	
Difficulty: Remember/Understand	1	
Lewis - Chapter 13	19	
Lewis - Chapter 14	8	
Lewis - Chapter 17	17	
Quiz 4	19	
Section: 13.01	1	
Test 4	120	
Topic: Genetics	1